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My father purchased a flat on the basis of agreement of sale. That agreement is not registered and stamp duty is not paid. We don’t have a society, only we have the possession of a flat. Now the owner plans to go under redevelopment. Do you think we should get equal rights in the property as the owner of the building? Total 6 flats of which 3 have possession of agreement of sale and 3 are under the ownership of builder. What’s the best case scenario for me.
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